For my Bible study, my church is going through John’s Gospel: Wisdom from Ephesus, with Michael Card. What I want to talk about in this blog post is an event in John 12. Greeks are in Jerusalem to worship at the festival, and some of them want to see Jesus. When Jesus is told about this, he says:
“The hour is come, that the Son of man should be glorified. Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and die, it abideth alone: but if it die, it bringeth forth much fruit. He that loveth his life shall lose it; and he that hateth his life in this world shall keep it unto life eternal. If any man serve me, let him follow me; and where I am, there shall also my servant be: if any man serve me, him will my Father honour. Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I unto this hour. Father, glorify thy name.” (John 12:23-28 KJV)
I have two questions, as well as questions accompanying the two questions:
1. Why did hearing that Greeks wanted to see Jesus make Jesus realize that his death was imminent? What is the relationship between Greeks wanting to see Jesus and Jesus’ death being near? Was it because the Greeks wanting to see him reminded him that he would draw all people to himself when he was lifted up from the earth? Was Jesus recalling that his crucifixion and resurrection would lead to the inclusion of Gentiles into God’s people, and the fact that Greeks wanted to see him was an indication that the harvest was ripe—-that his role in including the Gentiles was about to be realized? Was it because the Greeks’ acceptance of him highlighted in his mind that there were prominent people within his own nation who were seeking to kill him, even as outsiders were accepting him?
Jamieson, Faussett, and Brown say about v 23: “[The Greeks] would see Jesus, would they? Yet a little moment, and they shall see Him so as now they dream not of. The middle wall of partition that keeps them out from the commonwealth of Israel is on the eve of breaking down, ‘and I, if I be lifted up from the earth, shall draw all men unto Me’…”
2. Jesus’ statement that “The hour is come” intrigues me, on account of John 2:4, in which Jesus is reluctant to change the water into wine because his hour has not yet come. If Jesus’ “hour” is the time of his crucifixion and resurrection (see also John 7:30 and 8:20), what would his crucifixion and resurrection have to do with his reluctance to change water into wine? “I don’t want to change water into wine right now, for my time to be crucified and resurrected has not come yet.” That doesn’t make much sense, does it?
There are a number of interpreters who just say that Jesus in John 2:4 means that his hour to do miracles has not yet come. That sounds logical, but Jesus’ “hour” in John so often refers to his arrest, crucifixion, and resurrection, that I have a hard time saying that it means something different in John 2:4.
Of the commentaries that I read, John Gill and John MacArthur try to factor Jesus’ passion and resurrection into John 2:4. John Gill speculates that “it was not proper for him to work miracles as yet, lest it should provoke his enemies to seek his life before his time…” Maybe. Perhaps Jesus in John’s Gospel realized that the performance of his work was a delicate task: that he had to do things just right to get his message out. Jumping the gun by publicly turning the water into wine might puzzle or anger people prematurely, and thus he wouldn’t be able to say what he needed to say, when he needed to say it. Why, then, did Jesus turn the water into wine? Because he did so in a private, low-key manner, which would not attract premature attention.
John MacArthur states: “My hour has not yet come. The phrase constantly refers to Jesus’ death and exaltation (7:30; 8:20; 12:23, 27; 13:1; 17:1). He was on a divine schedule decreed by God before the foundation of the world. Since the prophets characterized the messianic age as a time when wine would flow liberally (Jer. 31:12; Hos. 14:7; Amos 9:13, 14), Jesus was likely referring to the fact that the necessity of the cross must come before the blessings of the millennial age.”
I’m not overly convinced by this explanation, to tell you the truth. I don’t think that Jesus had to die and rise again before Israel could enjoy the blessings of the messianic age, for such blessings were evident in Jesus’ ministry, before he died and rose again. In Matthew 11:5 and Luke 7:22, Jesus says that John the Baptist should have known that Jesus was the Messiah on account of the healings that Jesus was performing. Jesus in these passages may have had in mind such scriptures as Isaiah 35:6: “Then shall the lame man leap as an hart, and the tongue of the dumb sing: for in the wilderness shall waters break out, and streams in the desert.” But, if you only want to consider what’s in John’s Gospel in interpreting John’s Gospel, even John’s Gospel implies that the blessings of the messianic age are occurring during Jesus’ ministry. In John 6:45, for example, Jesus applies the prophecy that “they shall be all taught of God” to the people who were believing in him.
And yet, there is a sense in John’s Gospel that certain prophecies in the Hebrew Bible could not be fulfilled until after Jesus died and rose again. In John 7:38-39, we read (in the KJV): “He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water. (But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)”
Pentecost and John 16:10
We celebrated Pentecost at my church this morning. We sang songs about the liberating, creative, convicting, and yet gentle Spirit of God. I especially liked one of the songs that we sang, “Spirit”, which went into the Holy Spirit’s activity from creation through Sinai, all the way to Acts 2.
We were reading John 16:7-14, which is about the Comforter, the Holy Spirit. I’d like to highlight vv 8-11 in the King James Version:
“(8) And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: (9) Of sin, because they believe not on me; (10) Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more; (11) Of judgment, because the prince of this world is judged.”
I think that I understand v 9: the Holy Spirit convicts people of the sin of not believing in Christ. And I can somewhat understand v 11: the Holy Spirit is informing people that the prince of this world is judged. But I don’t quite get v 10: what does the Holy Spirit convicting people of righteousness have to do with Jesus going to his Father? Let’s check some commentaries!
One point that John Gill makes is that Jesus’ ascension to heaven and subsequent sending of the Holy Spirit vindicated his own (meaning Jesus’) righteousness against those who accused him of unrighteousness. Other Christian commentaries offer similar thoughts.
The Nelson Study Bible states: “of righteousness: After Christ’s departure the Holy Spirit would convict the world of the nature of righteousness and the need for righteousness. Jesus’ work on the Cross was completely righteous. This is demonstrated by the Father’s emptying of the tomb, signifying His satisfaction with the righteous payment and His acceptance of Christ into His presence.” In this view, Jesus’ ascension affirms the righteousness of what Jesus did on the cross, as well as God’s recognition of Jesus’ saving work for the saints.
John MacArthur states in his MacArthur Study Bible: “righteousness. The Holy Spirit’s purpose here is to shatter the pretensions of self-righteousness (hypocrisy), exposing the darkness of the heart (3:19–21; 7:7; 15:22, 24). While Jesus was on the earth, He performed this task especially toward the shallowness and emptiness of Judaism that had degenerated into legalistic modes without life-giving reality (e.g., 2:13–22; 5:10–16; 7:24; Is. 64:5, 6). With Jesus gone to the Father, the Holy Spirit continues His convicting role.” I don’t particularly care for MacArthur’s characterization of Judaism here, but I can see his overall point about the meaning of John 16:10: the Holy Spirit is carrying on Jesus’ work of convicting the world of righteousness, now that Jesus has ascended to heaven and is no longer physically on earth to do his convicting work.
Which of these interpretations do I prefer? Well, I’d like to interpret John 16:10 in light of themes within John’s Gospel itself. I’m hesitant to interpret it in reference to the doctrine of the substitutionary atonement, for I’m not certain that this doctrine is in John’s Gospel. I’m open to correction on this, but Jesus in John 12:32 seems to posit a moral-influence view of the atonement: Jesus, in being lifted up on the cross, draws people to him, perhaps through his demonstration of love.
But I’m open to some of the other interpretations of John 16:10: the Holy Spirit continues Jesus’ work of convicting the world now that Jesus is in heaven, or the Holy Spirit affirms that Jesus’ righteousness was affirmed by Jesus’ ascent into heaven.
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on May 19, 2013 at 8:48 pm Leave a CommentTags: christian commentaries, holy spirit convicts, macarthur study bible, nelson study bible, Religion, theology